A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would be considered Mendelian?
A) a gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent
B) a gene derived solely from maternal inheritance
C) a gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures
D) a gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters
E) a gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells
Answer: D
If the answers is incorrect or not given, you can answer the above question in the comment box. If the answers is incorrect or not given, you can answer the above question in the comment box.