The assertive message format

The assertive message format

A. should be worded to suit your own style of communication.
B. may require you to repeat a part to ensure the other person's understanding.
C. may be delivered in mixed order of the elements.
D. can combine two or more elements in a single phrase.
E. All of these answers are correct.








Answer: E

Talking the most, interrupting the other person, and changing the topic most often are all common indicators of

Talking the most, interrupting the other person, and changing the topic most often are all common indicators of

A. powerful control.
B. conversation control.
C. distributional control.
D. decision control.
E. context control.








Answer: B

Some studies show that computer-mediated communication

Some studies show that computer-mediated communication

A. always ensures intimacy.
B. enhances verbal, emotional, and social intimacy in interpersonal relationships.
C. is harmful to sustaining intimacy.
D. results in one level of self-disclosure.
E. None of these answers are correct.









Answer: B

Social exchange theory suggests that we often seek out people who can give us

Social exchange theory suggests that we often seek out people who can give us

A. relational rewards rather than physical ones.
B. rewards greater than or equal to the costs we encounter in dealing with them.
C. more self-esteem.
D. both relational and physical things without demanding anything of us.
E. something in exchange for what we give them.









Answer: B

Relationships

Relationships

A. are constantly changing.
B. can be characterized by dialectical tensions.
C. are affected by culture.
D. typically progress from one stage to another.
E. All of these choices are true about relationships.









Answer: E

People who act in accordance with Gibb's category of equality communicate that

People who act in accordance with Gibb's category of equality communicate that

A. everyone is equal in every way.
B. while they may have greater talent in some areas, all have just as much worth as human beings.
C. all human beings are created with the capacity to be equal in all areas.
D. All of these answers are correct.
E. None of the above answers are correct.










Answer: B

Paraphrasing is valuable in responding to critics because

Paraphrasing is valuable in responding to critics because

A. the intensity of the attack is often reduced when a complaint is acknowledged.
B. the critic knows then that he/she is right.
C. important information can be learned.
D. All of these answers are correct.
E. a and c







Answer: E

One type of relational transgression is

One type of relational transgression is

A. unfaithfulness.
B. verbal hostility.
C. rage.
D. criticism in front of others.
E. All of these choices are types of relational transgressions.








Answer: E

One of the best methods to use to describe your problem and needs to a partner during conflict resolution is

One of the best methods to use to describe your problem and needs to a partner during conflict resolution is

A. paraphrasing.
B. emotional description.
C. perception checking.
D. high-level abstractions.
E. the assertive message format.








Answer: E

Of the following, what is not a category of relational transgressions?

Of the following, what is not a category of relational transgressions?

A. open vs. private
B. deliberate vs. unintentional
C. minor vs. significant
D. social vs. relational
E. one-time vs. incremental







Answer: A

Intention statements can communicate

Intention statements can communicate

A. where you stand on an issue.
B. requests of others.
C. descriptions of how you plan to act in the future.
D. a, b, and c above.
E. only interpretations of behavior.








Answer: D

Individuals in low-context cultures typically resolve conflict by

Individuals in low-context cultures typically resolve conflict by

A. avoidance.
B. indirect communication.
C. nonassertion.
D. All of these answers are correct.
E. None of these answers are correct.








Answer: E

In order to decide which conflict style you should use, you should consider

In order to decide which conflict style you should use, you should consider

A. the situation.
B. the other person.
C. your goals.
D. the relationship.
E. All of these answers are correct.







Answer: E

In order for a conflict to exist, two interdependent parties must perceive

In order for a conflict to exist, two interdependent parties must perceive

A. incompatible goals.
B. scarce resources.
C. interference from the other party in achieving their goals.
D. a, b, and c are correct.
E. both a and c are correct.








Answer: D

Gibb's categories provide a useful way for us to examine our

Gibb's categories provide a useful way for us to examine our

A. perceptual differences.
B. defensive and supportive behaviors.
C. manipulative behaviors.
D. self-concept.
E. patterns of self-disclosure.







Answer: B

Evaluative language is also described as

Evaluative language is also described as

A. "me" language.
B. "it" language.
C. "neutral" language.
D. "supportive" language.
E. "you" language.









Answer: E

Defensiveness is the process of protecting your

Defensiveness is the process of protecting your

A. interpretations.
B. sense data.
C. perceived self.
D. presenting self.
E. None of the above answers are correct.






Answer: D

Conflict rituals

Conflict rituals

A. most often involve avoidance by both of the participants in the conflict.
B. are always damaging.
C. are defined as ways partners use guilt and intimidation to fight dirty.
D. should be replaced with compromise.
E. become problems when they are seen as the only way to resolve problems.






Answer: E

Communication climates are a function of

Communication climates are a function of

A. the tasks people perform.
B. Gibb's functional theories.
C. individual personality characteristics.
D. the way people feel about one another.
E. time, place, and context.







Answer: D

Avoiding is sometimes an appropriate style to choose when

Avoiding is sometimes an appropriate style to choose when

A. the issue is temporary or minor.
B. speaking up might cause physical harm.
C. the relationship isn't worth the effort.
D. a and b are correct.
E. All of these answers are correct.







Answer: E

Another term which describes the Gibb defensive category of neutrality would be

Another term which describes the Gibb defensive category of neutrality would be

A. understanding.
B. positive/negative balance.
C. indifference.
D. displaced loyalty.
E. aggressive perception.







Answer: C

Ambiguous responses

Ambiguous responses

A. ignore the other person's attempt to communicate.
B. are conversational "take aways."
C. are unrelated to what the other person has just said.
D. interrupt the other person.
E. contain messages with more than one meaning.






Answer: E

All of the following are true about similarity research except which one?

All of the following are true about similarity research except which one?

A. Communication ability is more important to relational happiness than being similar.
B. We tend to have stronger dislike for people who are similar to us but offensive.
C. Being similar to others can boost your ego.
D. Attraction is greatest when we're similar to others in areas like goals and beliefs.
E. For the most part, we like people who are similar to us.









Answer: A

All of the following are nondefensive responses to criticism recommended by your text except

All of the following are nondefensive responses to criticism recommended by your text except

A. asking for more details about the criticism.
B. accepting the speaker's comments, even if you disagree.
C. guessing about the details of the criticism.
D. paraphrasing the speaker's comments.
E. asking about the consequences of your behavior.









Answer: B

All of the following are disconfirming messages except

All of the following are disconfirming messages except

A. interrupting the other person.
B. giving ambiguous responses.
C. ignoring the other person.
D. using a problem-oriented approach.
E. responding with clichés.








Answer: D

All of the following are dimensions of intimacy except which one?

All of the following are dimensions of intimacy except which one?

A. physical
B. emotional
C. shared activities
D. intellectual
E. All of these answer are correct dimensions.







Answer: E

Agreeing with a critic's perception of your behavior involves

Agreeing with a critic's perception of your behavior involves

A. apologizing to the critic.
B. agreeing with the critic's right to see things his/her way.
C. backing off from your position.
D. All of these answers are correct.
E. None of the above answers are correct.








Answer: B

According to your text, the process of getting to know others by gaining more information about them is called

According to your text, the process of getting to know others by gaining more information about them is called

A. initiating.
B. approach behavior.
C. networking.
D. uncertainty reduction.
E. All of these choices are correct.








Answer: D

According to the text, we are usually attracted to people who

According to the text, we are usually attracted to people who

A. approve of us even in ways we know are inaccurate.
B. are high self-disclosers.
C. like us.
D. live far away from us
E. are perfect.









Answer: C

According to research studies, which family communication pattern produces more productive and satisfying results?

According to research studies, which family communication pattern produces more productive and satisfying results?

A. consensual
B. No pattern is necessarily better than another.
C. both consensual and pluralistic
D. both protective and laissez-faire
E. protective









Answer: C

A spiral

A spiral

A. is a reciprocating communication pattern.
B. can be escalatory or de-escalatory.
C. rarely goes on indefinitely.
D. reinforces the principle that "what goes around comes around."
E. All of these answers are correct.







Answer: E

A consequence statement can describe

A consequence statement can describe

A. what happens to you, the speaker.
B. what happens to the person you're addressing or to others.
C. why you're bothered or pleased by another's behavior.
D. what happens without moralizing about it.
E. All of these answers are correct.









Answer: E

A confirming response may

A confirming response may

A. control the other.
B. criticize the other.
C. recognize manipulation.
D. reveal deception.
E. agree with or acknowledge the other.










Answer: E

A competing/win-lose conflict style

A competing/win-lose conflict style

A. involves high concern for self and low concern for others.
B. can sometimes enhance a relationship.
C. has a distinguishing characteristic of power.
D. occurs when people perceive a situation as being an "either-or" one.
E. All of these answers are correct.





Answer: E

When the average unit cost of a good or service decreases as the capacity and/or volume of throughput increases, it is called ____.

When the average unit cost of a good or service decreases as the capacity and/or volume of throughput increases, it is called ____.

a. Economies of scale
b. Diseconomies of scale
c. Cost cushioning
d. A nonphysical constraint







Answer: A

Which of the following is a short-term capacity decision?

Which of the following is a short-term capacity decision?

a. Expanding the size and number of beds in a hospital
b. Amount of warehouse space to rent for a new promotional item
c. Closing down a distribution center
d. Changing the cooking technology in a chain of fast-food restaurants








Answer: B

In service organizations, capacity is more often viewed as ____.

In service organizations, capacity is more often viewed as ____.

a. The maximum rate of output per unit time
b. Units of resource availability
c. The ability to meet any customer demand
d. The amount of overtime scheduled







Answer: B

C&M Machining is developing plans for a dedicated production line and needs to determine how many drill presses will be needed. Engineering estimates are that one drill press will be able to process 120 parts per hour. Daily demand is 2,400 parts. C&M operates one 8-hour shift per day. How many drill presses are needed to meet the capacity requirements?

C&M Machining is developing plans for a dedicated production line and needs to determine how many drill presses will be needed. Engineering estimates are that one drill press will be able to process 120 parts per hour. Daily demand is 2,400 parts. C&M operates one 8-hour shift per day. How many drill presses are needed to meet the capacity requirements?

a. 2 drills
b. 3 drills
c. 4 drills
d. 5 drills







Answer: B

Safety capacity or a capacity cushion is

Safety capacity or a capacity cushion is

a. needed for processes with little demand variability
b. provided for anticipated events
c. generally higher in a job shop
d. not appropriate for service organizations








Answer: C

The long-term capacity expansion strategy that can be called a capacity straddle strategy is

The long-term capacity expansion strategy that can be called a capacity straddle strategy is

a. One large capacity increase
b. Small capacity increases that match demand
c. Small capacity increases that lead demand
d. Small capacity increases that lag demand









Answer: B

Safety capacity is intended for all of the following except

Safety capacity is intended for all of the following except

a. power outages
b. equipment breakdowns
c. seasonal demand
d. material shortages








Answer: C

Average safety capacity (%) is computed as

Average safety capacity (%) is computed as

a. Average resource utilization (%) 100%
b. 100% average resource utilization (%)
c. [maximum safety capacity (%) + minimum safety capacity (%)]/2
d. 100% maximum resource utilization (%)







Answer: B

Which of the following is not a valid approach to gathering data for judgmental forecasting?

Which of the following is not a valid approach to gathering data for judgmental forecasting?

a. Questionnaire
b. Telephone contact
c. Personal interview
d. Company records






Answer: D

Exponential smoothing...

Exponential smoothing...

a. Works best for long-term forecasting
b. Yields a mathematically optimal solution
c. Assigns weights to past data that decay exponentially as the data gets older
d. Cannot be adapted to handle trend









Answer: C

Which of the following is not a statistical method?

Which of the following is not a statistical method?

a. Delphi
b. Exponential smoothing
c. Moving average
d. Linear regression








Answer: A

Repeatable periods of ups and downs over short periods of time are called ____.

Repeatable periods of ups and downs over short periods of time are called ____.

a. Trends
b. Seasonal patterns
c. Cyclical patterns
d. Irregular variation





Answer: B

___ forecasts are needed for planning production schedules and to assign workers to jobs.

___ forecasts are needed for planning production schedules and to assign workers to jobs.

a. Long-range
b. Intermediate-range
c. Short-range
d. Demand planning








Answer: C

Combine forecasts from approaches that are similar. A group of international experts published a set of principles of forecasting that includes all of the following except

Combine forecasts from approaches that are similar. A group of international experts published a set of principles of forecasting that includes all of the following except

a. Use quantitative rather than qualitative methods.
b. Combine forecasts from approaches that are similar.
c. Ask experts to justify their forecasts in writing.
d. Use multiple measures of forecast accuracy.






Answer: B

A tracking signal provides a method for quantifying forecast

A tracking signal provides a method for quantifying forecast

a. bias
b. error
c. accuracy
d. outliers








Answer: A

Using a smoothing constant of 0.1 in Delphi methods of forecasting. All of the following are important concepts in forecasting except

Using a smoothing constant of 0.1 in Delphi methods of forecasting. All of the following are important concepts in forecasting except

a. Determining the planning horizon length.
b. Determining the time bucket size (i.e., year, quarter, month, week, day, etc.).
c. Using a smoothing constant of 0.1 in Delphi methods of forecasting.
d. Identifying cyclical patterns.







Answer: C

Company records Which of the following is not a valid approach to gathering data for judgmental forecasting?

Company records Which of the following is not a valid approach to gathering data for judgmental forecasting?

a. Questionnaire
b. Telephone contact
c. Personal interview
d. Company records









Answer: D

For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work?

For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work? 

A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen.
B) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long.
C) Avery et al. have already concluded that this experiment showed inconclusive results.
D) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive.
E) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.





Answer: E

Which of the following statements describes chromatin?

Which of the following statements describes chromatin? 

A) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA.
B) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the cytoplasm.
C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.
D) Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed.
E) Only euchromatin is visible under the light microscope.





Answer: C

Which of the following represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin?

Which of the following represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? 

A) nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain
B) looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome
C) looped domain, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber
D) nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber
E) 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain





Answer: A

Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?

Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? 

A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged.
C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic.
D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA.
E) Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.




Answer: A

Which of the following statements is true of histones?

Which of the following statements is true of histones? 

A) Each nucleosome consists of two molecules of histone H1.
B) Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead, it draws the nucleosomes together.
C) The carboxyl end of each histone extends outward from the nucleosome and is called a "histone tail."
D) Histones are found in mammals, but not in other animals or in plants or fungi.
E) The mass of histone in chromatin is approximately nine times the mass of DNA.





Answer: B

If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect?

If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect? 

A) There would be an increase in the amount of "satellite" DNA produced during centrifugation.
B) The cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its nucleus.
C) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
D) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.
E) Pseudogenes would be transcribed to compensate for the decreased protein in the cell.






Answer: B

Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome?

Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome? 

A) It is composed of DNA alone.
B) The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit.
C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an organism.
D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins.
E) Active transcription occurs on heterochromatin but not euchromatin.






Answer: D

In a linear eukaryotic chromatin sample, which of the following strands is looped into domains by scaffolding?

In a linear eukaryotic chromatin sample, which of the following strands is looped into domains by scaffolding? 

A) DNA without attached histones
B) DNA with H1 only
C) the 10-nm chromatin fiber
D) the 30-nm chromatin fiber
E) the metaphase chromosome




Answer: D

Studies of nucleosomes have shown that histones (except H1) exist in each nucleosome as two kinds of tetramers: one of 2 H2A molecules and 2 H2B molecules, and the other as 2 H3 and 2 H4 molecules. Which of the following is supported by this data?

Studies of nucleosomes have shown that histones (except H1) exist in each nucleosome as two kinds of tetramers: one of 2 H2A molecules and 2 H2B molecules, and the other as 2 H3 and 2 H4 molecules. Which of the following is supported by this data? 

A) DNA can wind itself around either of the two kinds of tetramers.
B) The two types of tetramers associate to form an octamer.
C) DNA has to associate with individual histones before they form tetramers.
D) Only H2A can form associations with DNA molecules.
E) The structure of H3 and H4 molecules is not basic like that of the other histones.






Answer: B

Which of the following sets of materials are required by both eukaryotes and prokaryotes for replication?

Which of the following sets of materials are required by both eukaryotes and prokaryotes for replication? 

A) double-stranded DNA, four kinds of dNTPs, primers, origins
B) topoisomerases, telomerases, polymerases
C) G-C rich regions, polymerases, chromosome nicks
D) nucleosome loosening, four dNTPs, four rNTPs
E) ligase, primers, nucleases






Answer: A

Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase?

Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase? 

A) a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous
B) production of Okazaki fragments
C) inability to repair thymine dimers
D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes
E) high sensitivity to sunlight




Answer: D

Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight. This occurs because their cells are impaired in what way?

Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight. This occurs because their cells are impaired in what way? 

A) They cannot replicate DNA.
B) They cannot undergo mitosis.
C) They cannot exchange DNA with other cells.
D) They cannot repair thymine dimers.
E) They do not recombine homologous chromosomes during meiosis.





Answer: D

Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?

Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?

A) primase
B) ligase
C) DNA polymerase
D) single-strand binding proteins
E) exonuclease






Answer: D

What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication?

What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication? 

A) It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer.
B) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres.
C) It joins Okazaki fragments together.
D) It unwinds the parental double helix.
E) It stabilizes the unwound parental DNA.





Answer: C

What is the function of topoisomerase?

What is the function of topoisomerase? 

A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
B) elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain
C) adding methyl groups to bases of DNA
D) unwinding of the double helix
E) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork






Answer: A

A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because

A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because 

A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the template.
B) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5' direction.
C) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3' end.
D) replication must progress toward the replication fork.
E) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end.





Answer: E

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that 

A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.
C) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.






Answer: A

The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that

The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that 

A) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose.
B) the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups.
C) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two.
D) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleoside triphosphates are found in all animal and plant cells.
E) triphosphate monomers are active in the nucleoside triphosphates, but not in ATP.






Answer: A

What is the function of DNA polymerase III?

What is the function of DNA polymerase III? 

A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication
B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
C) to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules
E) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication






Answer: C

To repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act?

To repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act? 

A) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase
B) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase
D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase
E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase





Answer: E

Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise?

Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise? 

A) replication followed by mitosis
B) replication without separation
C) meiosis followed by mitosis
D) fertilization by multiple sperm
E) special association with histone proteins





Answer: B

At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5' An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence?

At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork:
3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5'
An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? 

A) 5' G C C T A G G 3'
B) 3' G C C T A G G 5'
C) 5' A C G T T A G G 3'
D) 5' A C G U U A G G 3'
E) 5' G C C U A G G 3'





Answer: D

The DNA of telomeres has been found to be highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. What does this most probably reflect?

The DNA of telomeres has been found to be highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. What does this most probably reflect? 

A) the inactivity of this DNA
B) the low frequency of mutations occurring in this DNA
C) that new evolution of telomeres continues
D) that mutations in telomeres are relatively advantageous
E) that the critical function of telomeres must be maintained





Answer: E

The enzyme telomerase solves the problem of replication at the ends of linear chromosomes by which method?

The enzyme telomerase solves the problem of replication at the ends of linear chromosomes by which method? 

A) adding a single 5' cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases
B) causing specific double-strand DNA breaks that result in blunt ends on both strands
C) causing linear ends of the newly replicated DNA to circularize
D) adding numerous short DNA sequences such as TTAGGG, which form a hairpin turn
E) adding numerous GC pairs which resist hydrolysis and maintain chromosome integrity





Answer: D

Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following?

Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following? 

A) the evolution of telomerase enzyme
B) DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5' end
C) gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand
D) gaps left at the 3' end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer
E) the "no ends" of a circular chromosome





Answer: C

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' ? 3' direction?

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' ? 3' direction? 

A) primase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase III
D) topoisomerase
E) helicase





Answer: C

In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?

In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation? 

A) No proofreading will occur.
B) No replication fork will be formed.
C) The DNA will supercoil.
D) Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.
E) Replication will require a DNA template from another source.






Answer: B

An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements?

An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements? 

A) primase, polymerase, ligase
B) 3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5'
C) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'
D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III
E) 5' DNA to 3'





Answer: C

Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?

Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base? 

A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA.
B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.
C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.
D) Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine.
E) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.






Answer: E

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA? 

A) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
C) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
D) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
E) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.






Answer: B

Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of the following reasons?

Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of the following reasons? 

A) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.
B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.
C) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
D) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.
E) Prokaryotes have telomeres, and eukaryotes do not.






Answer: B

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found?

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? 

A) A = C
B) A = G and C = T
C) A + C = G + T
D) G + C = T + A







Answer: C

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following?

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following? 

A) sequence of bases
B) phosphate-sugar backbones
C) complementary pairing of bases
D) side groups of nitrogenous bases
E) different five-carbon sugars






Answer: A

Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA?

Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA? 

A) the diameter of the helix
B) the rate of replication
C) the sequence of nucleotides
D) the bond angles of the subunits
E) the frequency of A vs. T nucleotides





Answer: A

Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? 

A) 8%
B) 16%
C) 31%
D) 42%
E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.





Answer: A

Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine.

Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery?
In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine. 

A) Frederick Griffith
B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod
D) Erwin Chargaff
E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl





Answer: D

In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?

In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? 

A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.
B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.
C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.
D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines.
E) RNA includes ribose, whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.




Answer: B

After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living nonphosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait?

After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living nonphosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait? 

A) DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
B) Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
C) The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright.
D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent.
E) Both DNA and protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.




Answer: D

How do we describe transformation in bacteria?

How do we describe transformation in bacteria? 

A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule
B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA
E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell





Answer: E

In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?

In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe? 

A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.
B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.
E) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.






Answer: B

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive. 

How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs? 

A) all
B) none
C) half
D) one out of four
E) three out of four

Answer: B

What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height? A) none 

B) half
C) one out of four
D) three out of four
E) all

Answer: B

They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes? 

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

Answer: E

Suppose that a gene on human chromosome 18 can be imprinted in a given pattern in a female parent but not in a male parent. A couple in whom each maternal meiosis is followed by imprinting of this gene have children. What can we expect as a likely outcome?

Suppose that a gene on human chromosome 18 can be imprinted in a given pattern in a female parent but not in a male parent. A couple in whom each maternal meiosis is followed by imprinting of this gene have children. What can we expect as a likely outcome? 

A) All sons but no daughters will bear their mother's imprinting pattern.
B) All daughters but no sons will bear their mother's imprinting pattern.
C) All sons and daughters will have a 50% chance of receiving the mother's imprinting pattern.
D) All the children will bear their mother's imprinting pattern but only daughters will then pass it down.
E) Each of the children will imprint a different chromosome.




Answer: D

Which of the following produces a Mendelian pattern of inheritance?

Which of the following produces a Mendelian pattern of inheritance? 

A) genomic imprinting
B) a mitochondrial gene mutation
C) a chloroplast gene mutation
D) viral genomes that inhabit egg cytoplasm
E) a trait acted upon by many genes





Answer: E

A certain kind of snail can have a right-handed direction of shell coiling (D) or left-handed coiling (d). If direction of coiling is due to a protein deposited by the mother in the egg cytoplasm, then a Dd egg-producing snail and a dd sperm-producing snail will have offspring of which genotype(s) and phenotype(s)?

A certain kind of snail can have a right-handed direction of shell coiling (D) or left-handed coiling (d). If direction of coiling is due to a protein deposited by the mother in the egg cytoplasm, then a Dd egg-producing snail and a dd sperm-producing snail will have offspring of which genotype(s) and phenotype(s)? 

A) 1/2 Dd:1/2 dd; all right coiling
B) all Dd; all right coiling
C) 1/2 Dd:1/2 dd; half right and half left coiling
D) all Dd; all left coiling
E) all Dd; half right and half left coiling






Answer: A

Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for electron transport. Therefore, in which body systems would you expect most mitochondrial gene mutations to be exhibited?

Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for electron transport. Therefore, in which body systems would you expect most mitochondrial gene mutations to be exhibited? 

A) the immune system and the blood
B) the excretory and respiratory systems
C) the skin and senses
D) the nervous and muscular systems
E) the circulation system





Answer: D

Correns described that the inheritance of variegated color on the leaves of certain plants was determined by the maternal parent only. What phenomenon does this describe?

Correns described that the inheritance of variegated color on the leaves of certain plants was determined by the maternal parent only. What phenomenon does this describe? 

A) mitochondrial inheritance
B) chloroplast inheritance
C) genomic imprinting
D) infectious inheritance
E) sex-linkage






Answer: B

Genomic imprinting is generally due to the addition of methyl (–CH3) groups to C nucleotides in order to silence a given gene. If this depends on the sex of the parent who transmits the gene, which of the following must be true?

Genomic imprinting is generally due to the addition of methyl (–CH3) groups to C nucleotides in order to silence a given gene. If this depends on the sex of the parent who transmits the gene, which of the following must be true? 

A) Methylation of C is permanent in a gene.
B) Genes required for early development stages must not be imprinted.
C) Methylation of this kind must occur more in males than in females.
D) Methylation must be reversible in ovarian and testicular cells.
E) The imprints are transmitted only to gamete-producing cells.





Answer: D

A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would be considered Mendelian?

A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would be considered Mendelian? 

A) a gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent
B) a gene derived solely from maternal inheritance
C) a gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures
D) a gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters
E) a gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells






Answer: D

Which of the following is true of aneuploidies in general?

Which of the following is true of aneuploidies in general? 

A) A monosomy is more frequent than a trisomy.
B) 45 X is the only known human live-born monosomy.
C) Some human aneuploidies have selective advantage in some environments.
D) Of all human aneuploidies, only Down syndrome is associated with mental retardation.
E) An aneuploidy resulting in the deletion of a chromosome segment is less serious than a duplication.






Answer: B

At what point in cell division is a chromosome lost so that, after fertilization with a normal gamete, the result is an embryo with 45, X? I. an error in anaphase I II. an error in anaphase II III. an error of the first postfertilization mitosis IV. an error in pairing

At what point in cell division is a chromosome lost so that, after fertilization with a normal gamete, the result is an embryo with 45, X?
I. an error in anaphase I
II. an error in anaphase II
III. an error of the first postfertilization mitosis
IV. an error in pairing 

A) I or II only
B) II or IV only
C) III or IV only
D) I, II, or III only
E) I, II, III, or IV





Answer: E

Which of the following is known as a Philadelphia chromosome?

Which of the following is known as a Philadelphia chromosome? 

A) a human chromosome 22 that has had a specific translocation
B) a human chromosome 9 that is found only in one type of cancer
C) an animal chromosome found primarily in the mid-Atlantic area of the United States
D) an imprinted chromosome that always comes from the mother
E) a chromosome found not in the nucleus but in mitochondria





Answer: A